Organized crime has been around ever since the development of government.
There is no nation in the world today that is free of organized crime. In some cases, the criminal organization is closer to being a government than the recognized government. Organized crime is very powerful and very rich. But it isn’t just one organization. There are many criminal
organizations in the world today.
So how can anyone assert that with a particular solution organized crime will cease to exist in any economy that adopts that solution? What is special about the solution that relates to crime? The very features of post-POM (after physical object money) money preclude its use in organized criminal activities. For example, post-POM money is moral. It cannot be acquired by doing bad things. But let us assume that organized crime can force, somehow, the Payers to give them money. Wouldn’t that permit organized crime to continue?
Then I must ask you a question. Doesn’t organized crime flourish in order to get money? If they are getting money directly from the Payers, they don’t need gambling, prostitution, drugs, extortion, smuggling and so forth to get money. So the crimes would stop for lack of interest.
Since those being paid as a result of coercion of Payers are identified by their accounts, their arrest and conviction would be easy. Therefore coercion of Payers would be obviously a stupid thing to do.
But if participants in organized crime are doing it for the money, why deal with people who cannot give them money? Only Payers can credit their accounts. The usual customers of organized crime cannot give them money because post-POM money is not transferable to anyone else. It comes into existence when earned and ceases to exist when spent. Therefore, the motivation to try to get money from anyone else is eliminated.
But couldn’t organized crime switch to using the currency of some other economy which still uses a POM? Not very well. For one thing, one would have to leave the post-POM economy to spend it since few would accept it in a post-POM economy. For another thing, how would post-POM customers of organized crime acquire POM to give to the crime organization? In a post-POM economy, all property is owned by individuals and every item of property is registered in the computer accounts. Therefore, every bill of POM would be known to belong to person A and to give it to person B would require transferring ownership of that bill. This would leave a "paper trail" connecting the organized crime person "B" to the customer "A". Again, enforcement of law would be easy. It would be as if today all organized crime activities were conducted by check.
So if foreign currency will not work, organized crime is reduced to barter. With barter the only property which could be used would be things money can buy. Again, the ownership of those things is also tracked by the computer and thus a trail again exists linking the customer to the organization.
So much for conducting business. What about within the organization? How does the organization pay its criminal minions? How does one hire thugs? One cannot use post-POM money to pay them since that money is not transferable. One cannot use a foreign POM since the "paper trail" of ownership of the POM is present and the employee would have to leave the country to spend it. One cannot use luxuries to bribe them since the computer accounts would record those transfers of ownership as well. So the boss has no way to reward the employees in the illegal organization. Since all organized crime groups are hierarchical and bureaucratic, the only way the bosses can operate is if they can control the rewards of their members. Post-POM money makes such control impossible.
Therefore, though there will be crime in a post-POM society it will not be organized crime. But that crime is the subject of some other articles.
